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The CTO Study Guide, built to pass.

The Control Tower Operator written test is the credential that gets you taken seriously for tower work. This is the whole thing, organized the way it is actually tested: seven subject areas, hundreds of practice questions, every answer keyed to its reference. Study it, then walk in ready.

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The curriculum

Seven subject areas, in priority order

The written test is built from these seven areas of knowledge. The guide covers every one, in the order they carry weight, with a bank of questions for each.

Part 1

Airport Traffic Control Procedures

216 questions · duty priority, phraseology, runway ops

Part 2

Flight Rules

45 questions

Part 3

Communications Operating Procedures

45 questions

Part 4

Flight Assistance Service

43 questions

Part 5

Aviation Weather

46 questions

Part 6

Air Navigation & Aids to Navigation

31 questions

Part 7

En Route Traffic Control Procedures

31 questions

Reference

The Reference Library

Regulation excerpts & navigation reference

Free preview · Part 1

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Straight from Part 1, Airport Traffic Control Procedures. Tap an answer to see if you are right. This is exactly how the full guide works, times four hundred and fifty.

Question 1

Controllers who encounter situations that are not covered by the control procedures handbook are expected to ________.

Question 2

In procedural language, the word "shall" means a procedure is ________.

Question 3

The word that means a procedure is recommended is "________."

Question 4

The first duty priority of an air traffic controller is to separate aircraft and issue ________.

Question 5

When determining priority of duties, a controller should exercise ________.

Question 6

When time is used as a clock reading, hours and minutes are expressed in ________.

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1 · Airport Traffic Control Procedures 2 · Flight Rules 3 · Communications Operating Procedures 4 · Flight Assistance Service 5 · Aviation Weather 6 · Air Navigation 7 · En Route Traffic Control Procedures

Part 1 of 7

Airport Traffic Control Procedures

206 questions

Controllers who encounter situations that are NOT covered in 7110.65 are expected to ________.

Procedural Letters of Agreement are ________ to 7110.65.

Procedural Letters of Agreement require the concurrence of ________.

The word "shall" means a procedure is ________.

The word that means a procedure is recommended is "________."

The word that means futurity, but does NOT imply that a procedure or action is required is "________."

The term "aircraft" includes both the ________.

The word "altitude" refers to the indicated altitude expressed in mean sea level, ________, or both.

When used in conjunction with visibility, "miles" refers to ________ miles; otherwise, "miles" means ________ miles.

When time is used in the context of a clock reading, hours and minutes are expressed in ________.

When reading the time, the change to the next minute is made at the minute plus ________ seconds.

A time check is given to the nearest ________.

The first duty priority of an air traffic controller is to separate aircraft and issue ________.

When determining priority of duties, a controller should exercise ________.

Give first priority to __________ and issuing safety alerts

When establishing priority of duties, you should consider the ________.

When workload, communications, and equipment permit, ________ procedures are preferred.

The use of nonradar separation is preferred over radar separation when a(n) ________ will be gained.

A safety alert is issued when a controller recognizes a situation of unsafe aircraft proximity to terrain, obstacles, or ________.

Provide air traffic control service to aircraft on a(n) ________ basis as circumstances permit.

An aircraft in distress have the right- of-way over ________ air traffic..

Provide priority handling to AIR EVAC and HOSP flights when verbally requested by________.

Provide priority handling to civil air ambulance flights when the pilot, in radio transmissions, verbally identifies the flight by stating _________ followed by the authorized call sign

Provide priority handling, as required, to expedite ________ aircraft.

Provide priority handling and ________ assistance to SAR aircraft performing a SAR mission.

IFR aircraft must have priority over ________ aircraft.

USA/USN controllers must remind a military aircraft to check wheels down unless the pilot ________ for the approach.

When prompt compliance is required to avoid the development of an imminent situation, use the word ________.

When expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation, use the word ________.

What term do pilots use to inform ATC that they CANNOT accept undue delay at their destination because of low fuel?

A formation flight shall be controlled as a(n) ________.

Transfer control responsibility of an aircraft only after eliminating any potential ________.

Unless specifically coordinated, assume control of an aircraft only after ________.

Before allowing an aircraft to enter airspace under another controller's jurisdiction, a controller must first ________ with the receiving controller.

When must transfer of radio communications for an en route aircraft be accomplished?

Respond to another controller's operational request by restating the request in complete or abbreviated terms followed by the word ________.

Air traffic control service is provided based only upon observed or ________ traffic.

The operating position having primary responsibility for operations on the active runway is ________.

When a local controller authorizes a vehicle or aircraft under another controller's jurisdiction to cross an active runway, the local controller must specify the runway preceded by the word(s) ________.

Known ground vehicles, equipment, and personnel must be clear of a runway before a departing aircraft starts takeoff or a landing aircraft crosses the ________.

Vehicles on or near a movement area should be described in a manner that will assist pilots in ________.

An aircraft's position may be determined visually by the controller or through use of ________.

Local controllers may use certified radar displays to provide a direction or suggested heading to a VFR aircraft as an advisory aid to ________.

Pilots wishing to exceed the prescribed speed limit in Class C or Class D airspace must ________.

The minimum age requirement to be eligible for a CTO certificate is ________ years.

Separation responsibility between aircraft within a formation during transition to individual control rests with the ________ and the pilots of other aircraft in the flight.

A practical test on Notice to Airmen procedures is a prerequisite to act as an air traffic control operator at any ________.

A practical test on a surface area includes terrain features, visual checkpoints, and ________.

To operate at any operating position, a control tower operator must pass a(n) ________ test on weather reporting procedures and the use of reports.

At least once during each seven consecutive work days, a controller must have ________ consecutive hours of relief.

An air traffic controller is limited to ________ consecutive hours of duty.

When performing duties as an air traffic controller, controllers shall have their CTO certificate ________.

To meet currency requirements, air traffic control tower operators must have served for at least ________ of the preceding 6 months at the facility for which their facility rating applies.

Applicants for a facility rating at any air traffic control tower must have satisfactorily served as an air traffic control tower operator at that control tower without a facility rating for at least ________ months.

To meet the application requirements for a facility rating, a military applicant must have satisfactorily served as an air traffic control operator for at least ________ months.

What airspace extends from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower?

14 CFR, Part ________, specifies the required certificates and ratings or qualifications for air traffic control tower operations.

When distances can be determined by suitable landmarks, the separation minima between a Category II aircraft departing behind a Category I departure is ________ feet.

The minimum separation required for an aircraft taking off on the same runway behind a preceding heavy departure is ________ minute(s).

The minimum separation for an aircraft departing behind a heavy on parallel runways separated by less than 2,500 feet is ________ minute(s).

Intersection departures may be initiated or authorized by a controller if the ________.

Controllers action required if an aircraft executing a touch and go to a closed runway is to ________.

The approval or disapproval of a pilot request to remain in closed traffic is based on ________.

An aircraft conducting an overhead maneuver is on VFR and the IFR flight plan is canceled when the aircraft reaches the ________ on the initial approach portion of the maneuver.

Restricted low approaches are NOT authorized over an aircraft in takeoff position or a ________.

Issue the position, altitude (if known), and ________ of a super/heavy/B757 when issuing wake turbulence cautionary advisories.

Controllers may clear an arriving aircraft to land if they observe a preceding arrival's position and determine that the prescribed runway separation will exist when the succeeding aircraft crosses the ________.

During daylight hours when distances can be determined by suitable landmarks, an arriving Category I aircraft must NOT cross the landing threshold until a departing Category I aircraft is airborne and at least ________ feet from the landing threshold.

Issue wake turbulence cautionary advisories to aircraft landing behind a departing/arriving super or heavy on a parallel runway separated by less than ________ feet.

Simultaneous takeoff and landing operations may be conducted on intersecting runways provided that they are approved by the facility manager, authorized by a facility directive, and conducted ________.

A large aircraft is departing on an 8,000- foot runway. A small aircraft is ready for takeoff from an intersection on the same runway. The earliest the controller may clear the small aircraft for takeoff is ________ minute(s) after the large aircraft has taken off.

The minimum separation required when an arriving aircraft will fly through the airborne flight path of a departing heavy on a crossing runway is ________ minute(s).

Specific traffic pattern information issued to an arriving aircraft may be omitted if a ________ traffic pattern is in use.

Unless requested by the pilot, do NOT issue a downwind takeoff to helicopters if the tailwind exceeds ________ knots.

During taxi and ground movement operations, larger and heavier helicopters show a significant increase in ________.

When holding instructions are issued for more than one VFR aircraft at the same visual holding point, the controller must issue ________.

Operations on the active runway are a primary responsibility of ________.

When cleared to air-taxi, a helicopter is expected to remain below ________ feet AGL unless otherwise requested or instructed.

At locations that have a Letter of Agreement for Special VFR helicopter operations, the minimum separation between a Special VFR helicopter and an arriving or departing IFR aircraft 1 mile or more from the airport is ________ mile(s).

Authorize simultaneous helicopter landings and takeoffs if the landing/takeoff points are at least 200 feet apart and ________.

What phraseology will permit a pilot to make a touch-and-go, low approach, missed approach, or stop-and-go?

An aircraft cleared for a low approach is considered to be an arrival until the aircraft crosses the ________.

To achieve proper spacing between helicopters, ________ may be more practical than course changes.

Simultaneous same direction aircraft operations on parallel runways are authorized only during VFR conditions unless ________ separation is applied.

Simultaneous opposite direction aircraft operations on parallel runways between sunset and sunrise are NOT authorized unless runway centerlines are separated by a minimum of ________ feet.

Before takeoff, inform departing IFR, SVFR, and VFR aircraft receiving radar service and TRSA VFR aircraft of the appropriate departure control frequency and ________.

A nonapproach control tower may be authorized to provide visual separation between two aircraft within a(n) ________ area.

Nonapproach control towers may be authorized to provide visual separation between aircraft within surface areas or designated areas when approved separation is provided_____________ the application of visual separation.

Separation of IFR aircraft before and after the application of visual separation is a(n) ___________ function.

Departing IFR civil aircraft should be instructed to contact departure control after takeoff about ________ mile(s) beyond the end of the runway.

The departure control frequency may be omitted from a departure clearance if the aircraft is assigned a standard instrument departure (SID) and the frequency is published on the ________.

When radio communications CANNOT be employed, aircraft and movement of vehicles on the movement area are controlled by ________.

An aircraft receiving a flashing white signal light while holding short of an active runway should ________.

A flashing green light to an aircraft in flight means "________."

To obtain acknowledgement from an airborne fixed-wing aircraft equipped with receiver only between sunrise and sunset, request the aircraft to ________.

Between sunset and sunrise, a helicopter equipped with receiver only should be requested to acknowledge instructions by flashing the landing light or ________.

The appropriate light signal to use when aircraft are converging and a collision hazard exists is ________.

Wake turbulence separation minima must continue to touchdown for all aircraft NOT making a visual approach or ________.

Issue wake turbulence cautionary advisories to IFR aircraft that accept a visual approach or ________ when operating behind an aircraft that requires wake turbulence separation.

100

Provide preventive airport traffic control service only to aircraft operating in accordance with a ________.

101

When a low-level wind shear/microburst alert is received, issue the Airport Wind (direction and velocity) and the ________.

102

LLWAS is designed to detect conditions only around the periphery of a(n) ________.

103

When a low-level wind shear/microburst is reported by pilots or detected by LLWAS, the statement "LOW LEVEL EFFECT" must be included on the ATIS broadcast for ________ minutes.

104

Even though the Low Level Wind Shear Alert System (LLWAS) is NOT in alert status, issue specific field boundary wind information if ________.

105

If a low-level wind shear/microburst alert is received, issue the ________ and the displayed field boundary wind.

106

The certificate issued by the that authorizes the holder to act as an air traffic control tower operator is called a(n) ________ certificate.

107

An endorsement that an applicant has met the requirements to control air traffic at a facility is called a(n) ________.

108

Before a CTO certificate can be issued, each applicant must pass a(n) ________ examination.

109

A person acting as an air traffic control tower operator involving civil aircraft, who does NOT hold a valid CTO certificate or facility rating at that location, must be under the supervision of a holder of a(n) ________ for that control tower.

110

General eligibility requirements for non- employees and active duty military personnel to hold a CTO certificate include a minimum age of 18 years, good moral character, command of the English language, and possession of a(n) ________.

111

Skill requirements for operating positions in a control tower include the passing of a(n) ________ test.

112

An air traffic control tower operator may NOT issue an IFR clearance without approval of the facility having ________ that location.

113

NO person may perform the duties of an air traffic controller, even if holding a CTO certificate, unless that person holds a current ________.

114

Aircraft A, a Category II, is on final approach. Aircraft B, a Category III, is departing on the same runway. The minimum distance required for separation between the two aircraft using suitable landmarks as a reference is ________ feet.

115

Aircraft A has landed and aircraft B is on final approach to the same runway. Both aircraft are Category III. Ensure that aircraft B does NOT cross the landing threshold until aircraft A has ________.

116

Aircraft A is departing Runway 10. Aircraft B is on final approach to Runway 16. Ensure that aircraft B does NOT cross the landing threshold until aircraft A has departed and passed the ________.

117

Separate aircraft B from aircraft A using the same runway by ensuring that aircraft B does not cross the landing threshold until aircraft A has landed and ____________ or aircraft B is issued an Altitude Restricted Low Approach

118

The reduced runway separation minimum between a Category III departure followed by a Category I arrival is ________ feet.

119

Separate an arriving aircraft using one runway from another aircraft on an intersecting runway or a non- intersecting runway when the flight paths intersect by ensuring that the arriving aircraft does NOT cross the landing threshold or flight path until the preceding aircraft has ________.

120

Land and Hold Short Operations must only be conducted ________.

121

During Land and Hold Short Operations on intersecting runways, issue the measured distance from the landing threshold to the intersection, rounded down to the nearest ________ feet if requested by either aircraft.

122

A condition for conducting Land and Hold Short Operations on intersecting runways is that both runways must be dry with NO braking action reports of less than ________.

123

A provision for conducting a simultaneous operation on intersecting runways is that both aircraft involved must be issued ________.

124

The term "high key" relates to a(n) 1 ________ approach.

125

On an overhead approach, the initial 1 approach is ________ nautical miles in length.

126

Do NOT authorize an aircraft to line up and wait at an intersection at any 1 time when the intersection is ________.

127

While conducting simultaneous landings on intersecting runways, the maximum allowable tailwind for a landing aircraft that has been instructed to hold short of an intersection is ________.

132

After an aircraft has been issued a clearance to line up and wait on a runway, what is the phraseology used to prevent the aircraft from inadvertently taking off?

133

A pilot encountering an distress condition should broadcast ________preferably three times.

134

Inform an aircraft of any observed abnormal aircraft condition when requested by a pilot or ________.

135

When issuing traffic to radar- identified aircraft, state the azimuth and distance from the aircraft and the ________.

136

Local controllers may use certified tower radar displays to determine an aircraft's exact location, spatial relationship to other aircraft, or ________.

137

Identify a primary radar beacon target by observing the target make an identifying turn of ________ degrees or more.

138

What term describes a physical or automated action taken to transfer the radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another if the aircraft will enter the receiving controller's airspace and radio communications with the aircraft will NOT be transferred?

139

Transfer radar identification from one controller to another to provide ________ radar service.

140

What procedure permits one controller to transfer radar identification of an aircraft to another controller, request approval for an aircraft to enter another controller's airspace, and retain radio communications with the aircraft?

141

Radar separation shall be applied between the ________ of beacon control slashes.

142

Radar separation shall be applied between the ________ of beacon control slashes and the ________ of primary targets.

143

What phraseology term is used to inform the controller initiating a handoff that the aircraft is identified and approval is granted for the aircraft to enter the receiving controller's airspace?

144

The transferring controller must complete ________ prior to transferring control of an aircraft entering airspace delegated to the receiving controller.

145

Except where it is NOT operationally feasible, interfacility and intrafacility transfers of ________ must be accomplished in all areas of radar surveillance.

146

Do NOT approve a pilot's request to conduct aerobatic practice activities within surface areas of Class B, C, or D airspace unless operating in accordance with a ________.

147

When Special VFR operations are being conducted, authorize an aircraft to climb to VFR upon request if the only weather limitation is ________.

148

Special VFR aircraft are NOT assigned fixed altitudes because of the ________.

149

Special VFR minimums are prescribed in Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, Part ________.

150

Local controllers must visually scan runways ________.

151

Fixed-wing Special VFR flights may be approved only if arriving and departing IFR aircraft are NOT ________.

152

When ground visibility is officially reported at an airport as less than 1 mile, inform pilots of arriving fixed-wing aircraft that ground visibility is less than 1 mile and that a Special VFR clearance CANNOT be issued unless ________.

153

The minimum requirement for vertical separation between an IFR aircraft and a Special VFR aircraft is that the Special VFR aircraft be assigned an altitude at least ________ any conflicting IFR traffic.

154

Special VFR operations may be authorized for aircraft transiting the surface area when the primary airport is reporting VFR but the pilot is unable to ________.

155

The objective of gate hold procedures is to achieve departure delays of ________ minutes or less after engine start and taxi time.

156

When gate hold procedures are in effect, advise departing aircraft of th time at which the pilot can expect to receive a(n) ________ time and/or taxi advisory.

157

The sequence for departure under gate hold procedures must be maintained in accordance with ________ unless modified by flow control restrictions.

158

Gate hold procedures shall be implemented whenever departure delays exceed or are expected to exceed _________ minutes.

159

Describe the quality of braking action by using the terms "GOOD," "GOOD TO MEDIUM," "MEDIUM", "MEDIUM TO POOR," "POOR," _________, or a combination of these terms.

160

Where available, _________ is used to e provide advanced noncontrol airport/ terminal area and meteorological information to aircraft.

161

The ceiling/sky condition, visibility, and obstructions to vision may be omitted if the ceiling is above 5,000 feet and the visibility is more than___miles.

162

Unless required for message content, the duration of an ATIS message should NOT exceed _________ seconds.

163

During the recording of an ATIS message, the speech rate should NOT be ________.

164

When runway braking action 1 reports of "MEDIUM", "POOR" and "NIL" are received, what statement should be included on the ATIS broadcast?

165

The radar equipment used to 1 augment visual observation of aircraft and/or vehicular movement on runways and taxiways is ________.

166

What system is used to augment 1 visual observation of aircraft landing or departing as well as aircraft or vehicular movements on runways, taxiways, or other areas of the movement area?

167

The light system arranged to 1 provide vertical visual approach slope guidance information during the approach to a runway is ________.

172

If controls are provided, turn rotating beacon on ________.

173

Reportable values are ________ feet or less for RVR

174

What is the phraseology used to issue RVR information?

175

Issue current touchdown RVR/RVV for the runway(s)-in-use when RVR indicates a reportable value regardless of the ________.

176

Between sunrise and sunset, ceiling or visibility below basic VFR minima is indicated by turning on the ________.

177

Except where a "runway use" program is in effect, use the "calm wind" runway when the wind is less than ________ knots.

178

Determining which runways are to be designated as "active" is a primary responsibility of the ________.

179

The types of radar services designed to enhance safety by providing air traffic services to VFR aircraft are basic radar, TRSA, Class B, and Class ________ services.

180

The physical dimensions of Class C airspace will normally be a ________-NM radius capped at 4,000 feet above the primary airport.

181

Class C airspace shall extend down to ________ feet above the surface, except that an inner core with a 5-NM radius shall extend down to the surface.

182

" ________ ___ airspace Generally, that airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation's busiest airports in terms of airport operations or passenger enplanements."

183

What terminal radar service provides, in addition to basic radar service, sequencing of all IFR and participating VFR aircraft to the primary airport and separation between all participating VFR aircraft?

184

Pilot participation in the Terminal Radar Service Area is ________.

185

The appropriate VFR altitude for direction of flight rules does NOT apply until the aircraft is above ________ feet AGL.

186

Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSAs) are solely established to define airspace within which ________ service will be provided.

187

What airspace extends from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower?

188

The size and shape of a TRSA/Class B airspace will vary depending upon ________.

189

Minimum vertical separation between VFR aircraft and IFR aircraft within Class C airspace is ________ feet.

190

When applying basic radar services, the ________ ordinarily establishes the landing sequence.

191

The radius of the outer area encompassing Class C airspace will normally be ________NM, with some site-specific variations.

192

The physical dimensions of the Class C airspace will normally be a __ NM radius capped at ____ feet above the primary airport elevation

193

When basic radar service is being provided, an aircraft sighted by the local controller at the time of first radio contact may be positioned in the landing sequence after ________.

194

The specialist being relieved and the relieving specialist must share equal responsibility for the completeness and ________ of the position relief briefing.

195

The position relief briefing process involves ________ separate and distinct steps.

196

"Assumption of position responsibility" is step number ________ of the position relief briefing process.

197

The ordered listing of items to be covered during a position relief briefing is called the ________.

198

In position relief, the manual or automatic display of the current status of position-related equipment and operational conditions or procedures is the ________.

199

flight inspection aircraft are identified by the call sign ________.

200

Do NOT ask a flight check aircraft to deviate from the pilot's planned action except to preclude a(n) ________ situation.

201

Issue radar advisories to flight inspection aircraft where adequate coverage exists and to the extent permitted by ________.

202

When issuing advisories on bird activity, include the position, species or size (if known), direction of flight, and ________.

203

Bird activity information advisories are issued for at least ________ minutes after receipt of such information.

204

When appropriate procedural requirements are met, separation between aircraft may be reduced to ________ mile(s) within 10NM of the runway.

205

A designated STOL runway may be assigned only when requested by the pilot or as specified in a ________.

206

When requested by a pilot or when you deem it necessary, inform an aircraft of any observed abnormal aircraft condition by using the phraseology, "(Item) ________ (observed condition)."

207

Surface wind shall be described as "calm" when wind velocity is ________ knots.

208

Determining whether or NOT conditions are adequate for the use of STARS data on the TDW shall be the responsibility of the ________

209

Which terminal controller is responsible for operations conducted on the active runways?

210

A primary function of an ATCT is to provide ________.

211

That position which is in direct communications with the aircraft and ensures separation of aircraft in/on the area of jurisdiction.

212

Ground control must obtain 216. approval from ______ ______ before authorizing an aircraft or a vehicle to cross or use any portion of an active runway.

213

The active runway is controlled by the ________ controller.

214

Ground control must obtain _____ from local control before authorizing an aircraft or vehicle to cross or use any portion of an active runway.

Part 2 of 7

Flight Rules

39 questions

Unless a waiver is issued, NO person may operate an aircraft in such proximity as to create a(n) ________ hazard.

NO person may fly in formation if th aircraft is carrying ________.

An agreement between pilots-in- command of participating aircraft must be made before engaging in ________ flight.

Weather permitting, it is the responsibility of each person operating an aircraft to maintain vigilance in order to ________ other aircraft.

While operating in airspace underlying Class B airspace, aircraft shall NOT exceed an indicated airspeed of ________ knots.

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed for reciprocating engine aircraft at or below 2,500 feet AGL within four nautical miles of the primary airport in Class C or Class D airspace is ________ knots.

Within Class B airspace, the maximum airspeed of turbine- powered aircraft is ________ knots.

The maximum allowable airspeed for an aircraft below 10,000 feet is ________ knots.

The maximum allowable airspeed for a jet in Class C or Class D airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL within four nautical miles of the primary airport is ________ knots.

Speed restrictions do NOT apply if the prescribed speed is lower than the ________ of an aircraft.

The maximum allowable airspeed of a VFR aircraft operating in the VFR corridor through Class B airspace is ________ knots.

Aerobatic flight may NOT be conducted when flight visibility is less than ________ statute mile(s).

Aerobatic flight may NOT be conducted below ________ feet AGL.

Aerobatic flight may NOT be conducted within Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace or within 4 miles of the centerline of a(n) ________.

Position lights on aircraft must be lighted between ________.

During the hours of darkness, anticollision lights need NOT be lighted when the pilot-in-command determines that, because of ________ conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to turn the lights off.

A pilot may cancel IFR if operating in VFR conditions and outside of Class ________ airspace.

A pilot who deviates from an ATC instruction due to an emergency shall notify ________ as soon as possible.

If requested, a pilot who is granted priority by ATC in an emergency shall submit to the ATC facility manager a detailed report of that emergency within ________ hours.

A flashing green light signal to an aircraft on the ground means the aircraft is cleared to ________.

NO pilot may operate below minimum safe altitudes except when necessary for landing or ________.

A flashing red light signal directed to an aircraft in the air means "________."

The minimum safe altitude over 2 congested areas is 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of ________ feet of the aircraft.

In a sparsely populated area, an 3 aircraft may NOT operate within ________ feet of a building.

Helicopters may operate at less than 3 the prescribed minimum safe altitude over a congested area if the operation is conducted without hazard to persons or ________ on the surface.

Routes or altitudes specifically for 3 helicopters are prescribed by ________.

Normally, a large or turbine-powered aircraft will enter the airport traffi pattern at an altitude at least ________ feet AGL.

Who is the final authority on the use of an assigned noise abatement runway?

At controlled airports, a(n) ________ is required to taxi, take off, or land.

When a flight plan is filed, the ________ is responsible for closing the flight plan.

Before entering Class C airspace, an c aircraft must establish ________ with ATC.

Helicopters approaching to land at an airport without a control tower must avoid the ________.

Unless otherwise indicated, aircraft approaching to land at airports without control towers must make all turns to the ________.

In order for the pilot of a civil aircraft to land at or take off from an airport within Class B airspace, the pilot must hold at least a(n) ________ pilot's certificate.

When conditions require application of temporary flight restrictions in a particular area, the information is disseminated via a(n) ________.

An aircraft can only be flight-tested in areas of light air traffic over ________ or sparely populated areas.

ATC may authorize deviations from the operating requirements within Class A airspace provided that a written request for such deviations is submitted at least ________ days before the proposed operation.

NO pilot, except the pilot of a U.S. military aircraft, may land during a standard instrument approach when the ________ visibility is less than that prescribed for the approach.

When the air traffic control system CANNOT be conducted safely and efficiently, the ________ issues a NOTAM in response to the emergency.

Part 3 of 7

Communications Operating Procedures

42 questions

When combining positions in the tower, do NOT use ground control frequency for ________ communications.

When local and ground control functions are being combined, it is recommended that they be combined on the ________ frequency.

Operating positions shall monitor assigned radio frequencies and ________ continuously.

When issuing clearances or instructions, ensure ________ from pilots.

Pilots may acknowledge receipt of a radio message by stating ________.

If a clearance is read back by a pilot, the controller shall ensure the readback is ________.

Occasionally it may become necessary for controllers to authorize pilots to interrupt their communications ________.

Transmit only those messages necessary for air traffic control or otherwise contributing to ________.

If necessary, relay operational information to aircraft or aircraft ________.

When relaying operational information, relay the ________ of such information.

Relay operational information to military aircraft who are operating or who will operate on a(n) ________.

Although ____ MHz and ____ MHz are emergency frequencies, it might be best to keep the aircraft on the initial contact frequency. Change frequencies only when there is a valid reason

The format used when replying to an aircraft during initial call-up is the aircraft identification, ________, message, and "OVER" if required.

The first item stated during initial call-up to an aircraft is the ________.

On initial contact with an aircraft a controller will first state ________.

After initial call-up Omit the ________ after communications have been established.

After communications have been established, the controller may use the aircraft identification prefix and the________.

When the Vice President is onboard a USAF aircraft, the proper call sign for the aircraft is ________.

Do NOT abbreviate the call signs of aircraft with ________.

When the controller is communicating with an aircraft, the facility identification may be omitted after ________.

If a message obviously requires a reply, the word ________ may be omitted.

In prioritizing interphone messages, first priority shall be given to ________.

Lower priority messages may be interrupted on the interphone system by using the words "EMERGENCY" or ________.

When initializing an interphone call, the caller first states the identification of the position being called, followed by the ________.

Priority is given to interphone messages as follows: emergency messages, clearance and control instructions, movement and control messages, and ________.

Interphone messages should always be terminated by ________.

In inter/intrafacility communications for heavy/super aircraft identification and in communications with heavy/ super aircraft, the word(s) ________ must be used.

The ICAO phonetic word for the letter "A" is ________.

The ICAO phonetic word for the letter "B" is ________.

What phraseology is used to identify a B744 when issuing traffic?

The proper phraseology for stating the serial number 11609 is ________.

Which of the following are spoken by pronouncing each digit in the number of hundreds or thousands followed by the word "HUNDRED" or "THOUSAND" as appropriate?

The phraseology for stating an altitude of 10,500 feet is ________.

An altitude of 18,500 feet is stated as ________.

The phraseology for stating an altitude of 10,000 feet is ________.

General time information is given using the ________ separate digits of the hour and minutes based on the 24-hour clock in terms of Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).

What is the phraseology used to issue a time check of 11:30:00?

An altimeter setting of 30.32 is stated as ________.

When issuing a time check, state the word "TIME" followed by the four separate digits of the hour and minutes and the nearest ________.

When issuing a time check, time would be stated ____________.

The phraseology for stating a true airspeed of 250 is ________.

A wind of 350 degrees with a velocity of 20 knots should be stated as ________.

Part 4 of 7

Flight Assistance Service

41 questions

A condition of being threatened by serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance is classified as __________.

A potential distress condition of being concerned about safety and requiring timely but NOT immediate assistance is classified as a(n) __________.

If the words "MAYDAY" or "PAN- PAN" are NOT used and you are in doubt that a situation constitutes an emergency or potential emergency, handle it as though it were a(n) __________.

"Consider that an aircraft emergency exists and inform the RCC or ARTCC when an emergency is declared by either the pilot, facility personnel, or __________.

If a report indicates that a forced landing is about to occur, a(n) __________ exists.

An emergency may be declared if an emergency situation is observed or the need for __________ appears likely.

The minimum required information for handling an inflight emergency is aircraft identification and type, nature of emergency, and __________.

An emergency has been declared and the minimum information has been acquired. Other less pertinent information should be obtained after the __________.

Which of the following is NOT a recognized method of orientating lost aircraft?

If an ELT is heard or reported by an aircraft, AFSS and terminal facilities should notify the __________.

When you receive information about an aircraft in distress, forward detailed data to the __________ in whose area the emergency exists.

If you are in communication with an aircraft in distress and the pilot has NOT declared an emergency, you ________ the emergency.

Transfer the responsibility for handling an emergency to another facility only when better ________ will result.

After having received a specific bomb threat, the pilot requests technical assistance. This may be obtained from a(n) _________.

If communications with an emergency aircraft are difficult and weather conditions permit, the controller may ask the aircraft to _________ to improve reception.

Facilities that hear or receive a report of an ELT signal shall solicit assistance from _________.

One of the factors to consider when recommending an emergency airport for an emergency aircraft is _________.

When information is received from any source that a bomb has been placed on, in, or near an aircraft, notify your supervisor or _________.

Actions such as the unauthorized use of aircraft, tampering with aircraft or other property around airports or facilities, and placing packages or other objects in unusual locations are considered _________.

Do NOT attempt to delay, detain, or question a person conducting suspicious activities, but keep the person or persons in sight until a(n) _________ representative arrives.

Handle an aircraft targeted with a bomb threat as a(n) _________.

Once you have established which aircraft is the subject of a threat, notify the _________.

A bomb threat is received concerning an aircraft on the ground, and the pilot insists on departing. The controller should _________.

If you receive notification of a bomb threat and the pilot elects to remain on the ground, advise other aircraft to remain at least _____ yards away from the bomb threat aircraft.

If you receive a request for the location of the nearest explosive detection K-9 team, obtain the aircraft identification and position and notify _________.

If the location of the nearest explosive detection K-9 team has been relayed to the aircraft and the pilot wishes to divert to that location, the controller must obtain a(n) ______ from the pilot.

If an airborne aircraft receives a bomb threat, the controller may ask if the pilot wishes to climb or descend in order to _________.

If a pilot requests clearance to climb or descend, issue the appropriate clearance, taking into consideration MEA, MOCA, MRA, and _________.

Before an aircraft that has received a bomb threat is moved from the service area, consider the ________ as a paramount factor.

When an ELT is heard or reported, coordination with the Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) is the responsibility of the _________.

If you determine the location of the ELT signal, notify the _________.

Air traffic controllers must NOT leave their ______ to locate an ELT signal.

Methods and means of guiding an emergency aircraft to an airport include _________.

One of the organizations to which accounts of suspicious activities must be reported is the _________.

When a pilot requests technical assistance during a bomb threat situation, a controller should obtain the aircraft type, series, and model; the _____; and other pertinent details.

If a pilot states "minimum fuel," it means _________.

The Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) is operated by the _________.

Who must be responsible for receiving and relaying all pertinent ELT signal information to the appropriate authorities?

An aircraft on a VFR flight plan is considered overdue if it does NOT arrive at its destination and _______ minutes have passed since its ETA.

An aircraft NOT on a flight plan fails to arrive at its destination, and a reliable source reports that the flight was due to arrive at 2000. This aircraft is considered overdue at _______.

When an aircraft is considered to be in emergency status or an IFR aircraft is overdue, the _______ must alert the RCC.

Part 5 of 7

Aviation Weather

42 questions

A report of meteorological phenomena encountered by aircraft in flight is called a(n) ________.

Urgent PIREPs contain information about tornadoes, hail, _______, and _________.

When the ceiling is at or below 5,000 feet and the visibility is less than 5 miles, controllers are obligated to _________ PIREPs.

A decrease of temperature with an increase in height is called a(n) ________.

An altimeter depicts indicated altitude, which is altitude expressed as height above ________.

The ________ barometer is the type commonly used by meteorologists and the aviation community.

In a METAR, temperature and dew point are shown in whole degrees ________.

Surface temperature and dew point spread is important in anticipating ________.

An increase in temperature of the atmosphere with an increase of altitude height defines a(n) ________.

Weather advisories issued to amend an area forecast regarding weather phenomena that are of operational interest to all aircraft and potentially hazardous to aircraft are classified as ________.

Weather advisories issued for extreme turbulence and severe icing are classified as ________.

Advisories for existing and forecast weather involving tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms are classified as ________.

In the troposphere, the lapse rate is approximately _______°F per one thousand feet.

Convective currents are the result of ________.

Air is deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere due to ________.

In the Northern Hemisphere, air movement around a low pressure center flows in a(n) _________ direction.

The uneven heating of adjacent 2 bodies of air causing warm air to be drawn upward and more dense air downward defines _______.

A narrow, high-speed, meandering 2 band of air moving at a high altitude is called a _______.

The four basic cloud forms are 2 cirriform, nimbus, ________ and ________.

Clouds formed by vertical currents of unstable air are called ________ clouds.

Warm air slides over a wedge of colder air when a _______ front progresses forward.

Cold fronts typically move _______ than warm fronts.

The weather phenomenon particularly hazardous to aviation is ________.

The three principle types of fronts are cold, warm, and ________.

One of the most common and persistent weather hazards encountered in aviation is ________.

Clear ice is considered dangerous to aircraft in flight because it is ________.

The precipitation types are: ________, _________, ________, snow grains, ice pellets, hail, and small hail and/or snow pellets.

Rain rarely reduces surface visibility to less than _________ mile(s).

Three types of structural icing are clear, ________, and mixed.

When accumulation of aircraft icing is such that ice protection systems fail to remove or reduce it, the icing intensity is reported as ________.

_______ is a visible aggregate of minute water droplets or ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere that reduces visibility to less than 7 statue miles.

Small, dangerous downdrafts of wind extending horizontally 2.5 miles or less with wind speeds of up to 150 knots are called _______.

Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) most generally occurs at high altitude and in the vicinity of _______.

The initial stage of a thunderstorm occurs in a ________ cloud.

The mature stage of a thunderstorm is reached when _______ begins.

Airports equipped with LLWAS-Network Expansion (LLWAS systems integrated with TDWR and TDWR systems) provide the capability of detecting wind shear alerts and _______.

Two thunderstorm hazards to aircraft are hail and _______.

A violently rotating column of air in contact with the ground and associated with a thunderstorm is called a ________.

Pressure, temperature, and humidity are used to determine ________ altitude.

What type of Aviation Routine Weather Report would be generated when a wind shift occurs?

An Aviation Routine Weather Report taken after an aircraft mishap is called a _______ observation.

A change in wind speed and/or direction in a short distance is ca a ________.

Part 6 of 7

Air Navigation & Aids to Navigation

31 questions

A Nondirectional Radio Beacon (NDB) transmits nondirectional signals whereby the pilot of a properly equipped aircraft can determine the aircraft's _______ from the station.

Nondirectional Radio Beacons (NDBs) are subject to disturbances from lightning and precipitation static, which may result in erroneous _________ information.

Nondirectional Radio Beacons operate in what frequency band?

A ground-based electronic navigational aid transmitting very high frequency navigational signals 360 degrees in azimuth, orientated from magnetic north is called ________.

Which of the following is used as the basis for navigation within the National Airspace System?

VORs operate in what frequency band?

How many magnetic radials are available from a VOR?

The VOR antenna transmission pattern is ________.

A basic restriction regarding the use of VOR navigational aids is that its signal ________.

Specific geographical positions on the earth's surface are described by the terms "_______" and "_______."

The three aeronautical charts used by VFR pilots are VFR Terminal Area Charts, World Aeronautical Charts, and ________ Charts.

The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is known as magnetic ________.

Two basic methods of air navigation are radio and ________.

A satellite-based navigation system that provides highly accurate position and speed information is called _______.

An ultra high-frequency electronic air navigation aid that provides suitably equipped aircraft with a continuous indication of bearing and distance to the station is called _______.

TACANs are specifically designed for use by ________ aircraft.

DMEs operate in what frequency band?

The distance information received from DME equipment is _________.

A navigational aid providing VOR azimuth, TACAN azimuth, and TACAN distance-measuring equipment at one site is called a _________.

Which approach uses a localizer and glideslope?

An ILS approach is classified as a _________ approach.

A precision approach is an instrument approach that provides _________ information.

If the glideslope portion of an ILS is out of service, the approach procedure reverts to a nonprecision __________ approach.

A NAVAID used to identify a position on an ILS approach, while also providing range information along the final approach path, is called a _________.

The ILS component that provides course guidance to the runway centerline is called the _________.

A NOTAM D is given what type of handling?

Who is responsible for the origination of Notice to Airmen concerning NAVAIDs (NOTAM Ds) for which they are responsible?

All NOTAMs will be processed, stored, and distributed by the ________.

Who is responsible for monitoring the United States Notice to Airmen System?

What does the acronym "NAS" mean?

The purpose of an Approach Light System associated with ILS is to provide _________ information.

Part 7 of 7

En Route Traffic Control Procedures

31 questions

UAL92, en route LIT J6 AMA, will be cleared to descend from FL200 to 12,000. UAL92 shall be advised of the altimeter setting for ________.

Appropriate IFR altitudes at or below FL290 and above 15,000 for ASTA32, en route IRW GAG DEN, begin at _______ with intervals of _______ feet ascending.

An appropriate VFR altitude for N33P, en route IRW J6 LIT, would be any altitude if operating below ________ feet AGL.

COA51, en route IRW J78 TUL FAM, is 1 climbing to its assigned altitude of FL190 and has requested a higher altitude. An altitude that would NOT be appropriate TO LIT for the direction of flight is ________. J6

N123A's proposed route of flight is IRW V100 AMA. An appropriate IFR altitude for N123A is ________ feet.

The vertical separation minimum for IFR, RVSM-equipped aircraft up to and including FL410 is ________ feet.

Aircraft A, a B737/A, TAS 450, en route OKC V210 MLC, is level at 13,000. Aircraft B, a C500/A, TAS 410, filed OKC V210 MLC, is ready for departure requesting 13,000. Using DME, the minimum longitudinal separation is ________ miles.

N39H, a C310/T, TAS 165, is requesting clearance via OKC V14 TUL. N1347P, a BE9L/U, TAS 220, has been cleared OKC V14 TUL and departed at 1303 UTC. What minimum longitudinal separation must be established between these two aircraft?

AAL2 and UAL54 are en route ATL V278 DFW at 10,000 and 8,000 feet respectively. Both aircraft are the same speed using DME. AAL2 must be 00 ________ miles in front of UAL54 to 00 receive a descent clearance to 10,000. 00

Aircraft C is using DME. Aircraft D is NOT DME-equipped. Aircraft C is deriving distance information from the same NAVAID that aircraft D has reported passing and aircraft D is within 15 minutes of the NAVAID. The minimum usable longitudinal separation between these two aircraft is ________ miles.

Two DME-equipped aircraft are on the same course and both pilots are in direct radio communication with each other. If both pilots concur, the controller may authorize the following pilot to maintain longitudinal separation of 10 minutes or ______ miles.

Simultaneous holding at the same altitude may NOT be accomplished at ________ and ________.

The minimum lateral DME separation between aircraft A and aircraft B is _________ miles.

The minimum lateral separation between aircraft A and the protected airspace for aircraft C is ______ miles.

Aircraft may be cleared to hold over different fixes at the same altitude if the holding pattern airspace areas A ________.

Geographical locations may be used as visual reporting points or holding fixes if an aircraft is assigned an altitude below

TWA7 has been cleared to climb to 12,000 and has reported leaving 10,000. AAL75 has requested to climb to 10,000. Severe turbulence has been reported between 9,000 and 14,000. AAL75 may be assigned 10,000 when _________.

AAL75 is westbound en route V6 to OKC. The lowest altitude AAL75 may be assigned to cross the depicted MOA is _________ feet.

What type of clearance authorizes DAL98 to descend to minimum IFR altitude, climb/descend within an assigned altitude block at the pilot's discretion, and proceed to and make an approach at the destination airport?

DAL98, cleared to cruise 6,000, has reported leaving 6,000. UAL91 may be assigned 6,000 when DAL98 reports ________.

The minimum vertical separation required for RVSM aircraft up to and including FL 410 ________ feet.

The minimum vertical separation required for non-RVSM aircraft above FL290 through FL600 is ________ feet.

The minimum vertical separation for IFR flight at and below FL290 is ________ feet.

Two thousand feet of vertical separation is required for non-RVSM IFR flight above ________ up to and including FL600.

Separation of all air traffic within designated airspace by ATC is called ________.

The program whose mission is to balance air traffic demand with system capacity is ________.

Holding aircraft at the same altitude may be accomplished over different fixes if the ________.

The standard minimum longitudinal separation between aircraft is _____ minutes.

The standard minimum longitudinal separation between aircraft is _______ miles.

COA10, en route IRW V3 PNC, is climbing to an assigned altitude of 3,000 feet and has reported heavy turbulence and icing. The pilot has requested an altitude assignment of 6,000 feet. You may approve this altitude ________.

N123A's proposed route of flight is IRW V100 AMA. An appropriate IFR altitude for N123A is ________ feet.

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Straight answers

CTO questions, answered

What is the CTO written test?+

It is the knowledge test for the Control Tower Operator certificate, the credential that lets you work a tower for a federal contract operator. It is a closed-book, multiple-choice exam drawn from seven subject areas, from airport traffic control procedures to weather and navigation. A score of 70 percent or higher is required to pass.

What is inside the guide?+

All seven subject areas in priority order, with 450+ practice questions total, an answer key for every part, and a reference pointing to exactly where each answer comes from. It also includes the reference library of regulation and navigation excerpts you study from. The free preview above shows the exact format.

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Online, behind your member login. Your access lasts one month from when you unlock it, and you can study on any device during that time. You work through the seven areas in order and check yourself against the answer key and references.

Who is this for?+

Anyone preparing for the Control Tower Operator written test, whether you are heading into a contract tower, coming from the military, or working toward the credential on your own. If you want to see where the CTO fits in the bigger picture, the career guide covers the tower academies and the routes in.

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is the passing bar. Know the material cold and it is very beatable.